LLB MCQ

SEMESTER I

CONTRACT I

1. When is the communication of proposals, the acceptance of proposals and the revocation of proposals deemed to be made:
A. Only on clear verbal communication of such proposal, acceptance or revocation
B. By any act or omission of the party by which he intends to communicate such proposal, acceptance or revocation or has the effect of communicating it
C. Only when the proposal, acceptance or revocation of the proposal is recorded in writing
D. Only when the proposal, acceptance or revocation of the proposal is received and understood by the other party receiving the information.

2. When is the communication of a proposal complete:
A When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
B Only when the proposal, acceptance or revocation of the proposal is recorded in writing
C When the other party gives his assent or dissent to the proposal
D Only when a clear verbal communication of such proposal is made

3. When can a proposal be revoked:
A Once a proposal is made, it cannot be revoked
B Any time before or after the communication of acceptance is complete
C Any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards
D Any time before the proposal comes to the knowledge of the other party, but not afterwards

4. A proposal cannot be revoked:
A. By the communication of notice of revocation by the proposer to the other party
B. By the failure of the acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent to acceptance
C. By the lapse of the time prescribed in such proposal for its acceptance
D. By an act involving moral turpitude of the proposer, whether related to the proposal or otherwise

5. Which of the following is not a necessary feature to convert a proposal into a promise:
A The acceptance must be absolute
B The acceptance must be within the prescribed time limit
C The acceptance must be unqualified
D The acceptance must be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner

6. When is the promise said to be express:
A When the proposal or acceptance of any promise is made in words
B When the proposal or acceptance of any promise is made through visual representation
C When the proposal or acceptance of any promise is made in any way other than words
D When the proposal or acceptance is made by either in words or in any way other than words

7. Which of the following feature is not essential for a contract:
A. It should be in writing only
B. free consent of parties competent to contract
C. lawful consideration and with a lawful object
D. It should not be declared void expressly
Q.8. Who among the following is not competent to contract:
A Person who has acquired the age of 18
B Person who has acquired the age of 16
C Person is of sound mind
D Person who is disqualified from contracting by any law

9. What is consent under the Indian Contract Act, 1872:
A When acceptance of proposal is made by the party to whom the proposal is made
B When the acceptance is made by another person other than the person to whom the proposal is made
C When they agree upon the same thing in the same sense
D When both the parties agree upon a thing in the way it is understood by them

10. Which of the following is not a necessary feature for free consent:
A When the consent is not caused by coercion
B When the consent is not caused by undue influence
C When the consent is not caused by mistake
D When the consent is not caused by misunderstanding

Answer: 1-C,2-A,3-C,4-D,5-B,6-A,7-A,8 -B,9-C,10-D

LABOUR LAW

1. A worker who has been employed in an office for more than a year but dismissed by his employer without any appropriate reason. This matter must be addressed under the…..
a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
b) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
c) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
d) Factories Act.

2. Which article of the Indian Constitution gives freedom to form a trade Union?
a) Article 23
b) Article 19(1)(c)
c) Article 24
d) Article 14

3. Which of the following area, where central government is exclusively competent to enact legislations—
a) Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes.
b) Social security and social insurance; employment and unemployment.
c) Welfare of labour including conditions of work, provident funds, employers’ lia­bility, workmen’s
compensation, invalidity and old age pensions and maternity benefits.
d) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields

4. A premises including precincts thereof is a ‘factory’ within the meaning of the Factories Act, 1948 wherein
a manufacturing process is being carried on without the aid of power and where the number of workers
working is –
a) 10 or more workers
b) 20 or more workers
c) 15 or more workers
d) 50 or more workers.

5. As per Payment of Wages Act, 1936, in railway factory or industrial or other establishment upon or in
which less than one thousand persons are employed, wages shall be paid before the expiry of the —
a) Seventh day of the month.
b) Tenth Day of the months
c) Third Day of the months
d) Ninth Day of the months

6. As per the provisions contained in Chapter VB of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 establishment employing
_____________ persons or more are required to seek prior permission of Appropriate Government before
effecting lay-off, retrenchment and closure.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 250
d) 500

7. ___________________ have been set up under the provisions of Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 for adjudication
of industrial disputes in an organisation.
a) Lok-Adalat
b) Industrial Tribunal
c) Labour Court
d) All of the above

8.Bonus must be paid to employees within a period of …………………….. months from the close of the
accounting year.;
a) 8
b) 9
c) 12
d) None of the above.
9.The minimum number of members required for registration of a trade union is- .
a) 2
b) 3
c) 7
d) 10

10.The employer is required to send a report to the Commissioner for workmen’s compensation within
……………………… days of the death or serious injury of the workman.
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
Answers: 1-A, 2-B, 3-D,4-D, 5-A,6-D, 7-C, 8-A, 9-C, 10-A.

LAW OF TORTS

1.Which of the following interests is not protected by the law of tort?
a) Loss of commercial profit due to competition
b) Reputation
cPeaceful enjoyment of one’s land
d)Physical safety

2.What is meant by the term ‘actionable per se’?
a) Actionable only in the civil courts
b) A tort of strict liability
c)Actionable without proof of damage
d) Actionable at the instance of the injured party only

3.The law of contract is different from the law of tort in which way?
a)It is actionable in both the civil and criminal courts
b) It generally concerns a relationship between two parties only
c)Contracts are always written
d)Tort is made up predominantly of statute law.

4.What is the primary function of the law of tort
a) The punishment of a wrongdoer
b) The clarification of the human rights of parties
c) The spreading of losses throughout society
d) Compensating the claimant

5.Which of the following is not an objective of the law of tort?
a)Deterrence
b) Imposition of moral blame
c) Compensation

d) Corrective justice

6. Which of the following is the main alternative to tort, for the provision of compensation?
a) State social security
b) Charity
c)First party insurance
d)Criminal Injuries Compensation

7.The law of Trespass to the Person: which statement is incorrect?
a) Historically more about vindication of rights than obtaining compensation.

b) It is ‘actionable per se’—means that the claimant need not prove any tangible physical harm in order to sue.

c) The burden of proof in tort lies on the defendant to prove all the essential elements of the tort in question. The claimant has the burden of proving any defence on which he seeks to rely.

d) In tort the standard of proof is ‘on the balance of probabilities’. This means that a particular state of affairs must be shown as more likely than not to have occurred

8. Which of the following is not a defence to tort of defamation?

a) Defence of Truth

b) Defence of Privilege

c)Defence of Honest Opinion

d)Defence of Publication on a Matter of Public Interest

9. Which of the following statements is correct about damages in tort?

a) There are three types of damages in tort.
b) Whatever the outcome, claimants will be awarded the costs of bringing the claim.
c)Damages for non-pecuniary losses covers past, present and future pain, but not loss of amenity
d)One of the general principles of compensatory damages is the mitigation of loss.

10. To have a successful claim under tort of negligence, the claimant needs to prove several elements. Which of the following is not wholly correct?

a) One of the elements the claimant needs to prove is a breach of duty, which is a subjective test.
b) One of the elements the claimant needs to prove is a duty of care, which is a 3 staged test.
c)One of the elements the claimant needs to prove is that the Defendant caused damage.
d)The damage caused by the defendant needs to be reasonably foreseeable.
Answers:1 -A, 2 -C,3 -B, 4 -D, 5-D, 6 -A, 7 -C, 8 -C, 9 – C, 10 -A.

LEGAL LANGUAGE AND LEGAL WRITING

1) The term Adjourn Means

a) To defer the hearing of a case to another date in court

b) Decision of the court

c) According to valuation

d) With a common understanding

2) The term in Camera means

a) Bring a change against the person

b) In equal fault culpable or criminal

c) Not in open court in Private

d) Court in Proceedings

3) The Term Act of God Means

a) An accident which occurs due to the operation of natural forces which no human foresight could provide against.

b) A wrongful act which an action lies in court of law.

c) Act done by Government in Exercise of its sovereign Powers

d) Wrongful act

4) The term FIR means

a) The Right of Voting

b) Crime of any Kind

c) A punishment whereby the offender lost his interest in property

d) First Information Report of grievance which is given to police

5) The term enactment means

a) By virtue of office

b) Act of Parliament

c) A liability of property

d) An interest in land

e)

6) A friend of the Court is called as

a) Amicus curaie

b) Judgement Debtor

c) Judge

d) Witness

7) The Term In Re Means

a) In matter of

b) A person who dies without making will

c) By the fact itself

d) With the Powers

8) The term De Jure means

a) According to law

b) In fact

c) A person sued in court of law

d) A judgement delivered by a court

9) An individual who is under arrest must do all but one of the following

a) Give a name and address

b) Have fingerprints and photograph taken

c) Make a statement

d) Go with police

10) A bail application or hearing must be made available within

a) 48 hrs.

b) 24 hrs. from arrest

c) 7 days of arrest

d) 72 hrs. of arrest

Answer: 1-A,2-C,3-A,4-D,5-B,6-A,7-A, 8-A,9-C, 10-B.

SEMESTER II

CONSTITUTION

1. Which Article is for “Protection of interests of Minorities”?
a) Article 26
b) Article 27
c) Article 29
d) Article 30

2.Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee?
a) N Gopalaswamy
b) K.M Munshi
c) N Madhava Rao
d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

3. Which Article is related with “Abolition of Untouchability”?
a) Article 20
b) Article 19
c) Article 18
d) Article 17

4. Constitution of India came into effect from?
a)15 January 1950
b) 26 January 1950
c)15 August 1950
d) 15 January 1950

5. Which Article is related to Equality before law?
a) Art. 13
b) Art. 14
c) Art. 15
d) Art. 16

6. Which Article is for “Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases"?
a) Article 24
b) Article 23
c) Article 22
d) Article 21

7.Which article is related to “Equal Justice and free legal aid”?
a) Article 39
b) Article 39 A
c) Article 43
d) Article 43 A

8. Article 44 is related to?
a) Uniform civil code for citizens.
b) Provision of early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years.
c) The duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition.
d) Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry

9. Which article is related to Special Address by the president?
a) Article 84
b) Article 85
c) Article 86
d)Article 87

10. Which article is related to Assent to Bills?
a) Article 98
b) Article 111
c) Article 112
d)Article 114
Answers: 1-C, 2-D, 3-D, 4-B, 5-B, 6-C, 7-B, 8-A, 9 – D, 10-B.

ENVIRONMENTAL LAW

1.Which one of the following fundamental duties relates to environment protection?
(a) 51A(b)
(b) 51A(c)
(c) 51A(g)
(d) 51A(f)

2.‘We have to evolve new principles and lay down new norms which will adequately deal with new problems which arise in a highly industralised society’ was laid down in:
a) Common cause v. union of India
b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
c) Invercargill city council v. Hamlin
d) Union of India v. Sat pal Dharam Vir

3.The sustainable Development Goals committed to provide:
a) Universal access to affordable, reliable and modern energy services
b) Improving the cost of living
c) Doubling of energy efficiency by 2020
d) Protection of ocean and wetland

4. ‘Right to Environment’ discourse includes
a) Right to health
b) Right to Property
c) Right to practice Religion
d) Right to free speech

5. Boon convention is associated with
a) Convention on international trade in endangered species
b) International whaling convention
c) Convention on migratory species
d) Convention on nature and natural resources

6. The code of criminal procedure which contains some general provisions to cover ordinary situations came to be regarded as an instrument to combat pollution in 1930 and was utilized in one of the cases:
a) Subhash Kumar v/s state of Bihar
b) Chran lal sahu v/s union of India
c) A.P. state pollution control board v/s M.V. Naidu
d) Municipal council Ratlam v/s Vardichand

7. The state is the trustee of all natural resources which are by nature meant for public use and enjoyment and that Indian legal system includes the public trust doctrine. The supreme court of India has observed the above in one of the following case:
a) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India
b) Indian Council for Enviro-legal action v. union of India
c) M.C. Mehta v/s Union of India
d) Shri sachidananda Pandey v. state of west Bengal

8. The AIR (Prevention and control of pollution) Act of 1981 was enacted
a) By the parliament under Art. 252(1) of the constitution after securing and enabling resolution from the states
b) By the parliament invoking the power under Art.253 to make laws implementing decisions taken at international conferences.
c) By the states as the executive functions under the Air Act are carried out by the state pollution control board.
d) By the parliament based on directions given by the supreme court.

9. Which one of the conference is regarded as “Water shed” in the field of environment that enables the international community and institutions to work without being bothered by the principle of state sovereignty?
(a) Stockholm conference
(b) Bali conference
(c) Copenhagen conference
(d) Rio Conference

10. The decision given in M.C. Mehta v. U.O.I
(a) Vicarious liability
(b) Absolute liability
(c) Strict liability
(d) Simple liability

Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-A,4-A, 5-C,6-D,7-B, 8-B, 9-A, 10-B.

FAMILY LAW I

1.Which is the most important consideration in the appointment of a guardian by the court?
a) Character and capacity of the guardian.
b) Personal law of the child.
c) Wishes of the deceased parents.
d) Welfare of the child

2. A marriage of a Muslim man with his niece or great niece is
a) void
b) irregular
c)valid
d)muta.
3. Muta marriages are considered to be illicit by
(a) Sunnite School of Mohammedan law
(b) Ismaili’s
(c) Zaydis
(d)Arabic school

4. One-fifth rule" in respect of granting alimony was incorporated
a) Indian Divorce Act.
b) Special Marriage Act.
c) Hindu Marriage Act
d) None of the above.

5. Desertion may come to an end by:
a) Resumption of cohabitation.
b) By filing for divorce
c) By filing maintenance
d) By filing for judicial separation

6. Formal sources of Islamic law are
(a) two
(b) four
(c) six
(d) seven

7. Islam in Arabic means
a) submission to the will of God
b) deliberate adoption of a new faith
c) adoption of the faith of Islam
d) Professing faith

8. Religion taught by the Prophet Mohammed is
a) Islam
b) Protestant
c) Muslim
d) Jew

9. A Muslim woman can marry
a) Muslim man
b) Kitabi
c)Hindu
d)Parsi

10. Muta under Mohammedan law means
a) a temporary marriage
b) a permanent marriage
c) a joint venture marriage
d) an illegal marriage.
Answers: 1-D, 2-C, 3- A, 4- A, 5-A, 6-B, 7-A, 8-A, 9-A, 10- A.

IPC

1.Section 82 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
a) six years of age
b) seven years of age
c) nine years of age
d)ten years of age.

2. A person is stated to be partially incapax under section 83, IPC if he is aged:
a) above seven years and under twelve years
b) above seven years and under ten years
c) above seven years and under sixteen years
d)above seven years and under eighteen years.

3. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched:
a) Mens Rea – R. v. Prince
b) Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard
c)Insanity – McNaughton case
d) Intoxication – Basudeo v. State of Pepsu.

4.The maxim ‘actus non facit rea nisi mens sit rea’ means:
a) crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
b) there can be no crime without a guilty mind
c) crime is the result of guilty mind
d) criminal mind leads to crime

5. Section 84 of IPC provides for:
a) medical insanity
b) legal insanity
c) moral insanity
d) unsoundness of mind of any kind.

6. A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of:
a) section 77 of IPC
b) section 78 of IPC
c)section 79 of IPC
d) section 76 of IPC.

7. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication:
a) can be self-administered
b) administered against his will or knowledge
c) should not be self-administered
d) can be administered by minor

8. Operation of consent to all offences, short of causing death intentionally, has been extended under:
a) section 88 of IPC
b) section 90 of IPC
c) section 91 of IPC
d) section 87 of IPC.

9. The principle ‘de minimus non curat lex’ is contained in:
a) section 92 of IPC
b) section 93 of IPC
c) section 94 of IPC
d) section 95 of IPC.

10. The right of private defence is contained in:
a) section 94 of IPC
b) section 95 of IPC
c)section 96 of IPC
d) section 98 of IPC.
Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C,4-B, 5-B,6-B,7-B,8-A,9-D,10-C.

Ans. C

SEMESTER III

ADMINISTRATIVE LAW

1) Administrative law relates to
a) Legal status of foreign officials
b) The rights and liabilities of private individuals in their dealings with officials.
c) Specifies law relating to property
d) State and Crime

2) Administrative law is a law relating to the administration. it determines the organization, powers and duties of the administrative authorities.by whom was this definition given?
a) Kenneth Culp Davis
b) Ivor Jennings
c) A.V. Dicey
d) John Locke

3) Which are the sources of administrative law in India?
a) Law of the land
b) Acts of Foreign State
c) Judgements of Ancient Rulers
d) Judgements of Customary law
4) Administrative law as a law has seen its growth
a)19th century
b)18th century
c)2oth century
d) 21st Century

5)Welfare state is a concept of government
a) State plays a key role in protection and promotion of economic and social well beings of its citizens
b) It plays the function of police state only
c) It provides stringent laws
d) Citizens play a prominent role
6) Delegated legislation is in form of
a) Ordinance
b) Case Law
c) Customary Law
d) International law

7) The doctrine which establishes a line of proper demarcation of proper boundaries for the functioning of constitutional law and administrative law is
a) Doctrine of pith and substance
b) Doctrine of Waiver
c) Doctrine of Water Shade
d) Doctrine of Precedent

8) Ordinances, notifications issued by the President at union and federal level
a) Sources of Administrative law
b) Cannot be considered part of administrative law
c) Can be overruled by Trial Courts
d) Sources of International law

9)In America the Sources of Administrative law are
a) Statutes
b) precedent
c) public opinion
d) opinion of President

10) Less government is involved in the Economy, the better off business will be is related to which principle
a) Laissez Faire
b) Principles of Natural Justice
c) Henry clause
d) Doctrine of Pith and Substance
Answer: 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C, 5-A, 6-A, 7-C, 8-A, 9-A, 10-A.

COMPANY LAW

1. Which amongst the following is not a characteristic of a Company?
A. Separate Corporate Personality
B. Common Seal
C. Unlimited Personal Liability
D. Perpetual Succession

2. What is the legal Position of Promoter?
A. Trustee to a company
B. Agent of a company
C. Fiduciary relationship to the company
D. Master Servant relationship to the company

3. Which Amongst the following is the Leading case for Doctrine of indoor Management?
A. Royal British Bank vs Turquand 1856
B. Soloman vs Soloman 1897
C. Foss v Harbottle (1843)
D. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co Ltd v Riche (1875)

4. Minimum Number of Directors in a Public Company shall be?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 7
D. 15

5. Where Fraudulent or dishonest use is made of a legal entity, the individuals concerned will not be allowed to take shelter behind the corporate personality. The Court will break through the corporate shell and this is called as___________
A. Doctrine of Constructive Notice
B. Doctrine of Alter Ego
C. Doctrine of Lifting Up of the Corporate Veil
D. Doctrine of Indoor Management 6. Document that regulates the management

6. Document that regulates the management of Internal affairs of a Company
A. Memorandum of association
B. Articles of association
C. Prospectus
D. Certificate of Incorporation.

7. If A Ltd. has right to appoint majority of board of directors of B Ltd., then A Ltd. shall be considered as –
A. Subsidiary of B Ltd.
B. Holding Company of B Ltd.
C. Associate Company of B Ltd.
D. None of the above.

8. A petition u/s 272 for winding up of a company by Tribunal cannot be filed by –
A. the Company
B. the Contributory
C. the Registrar
D. the Unsecured Creditor

9. The following statement is not correct as regards a company
A. It is an artificial person
B. It is not a citizen
C. It does not have perpetual succession.
D.It can sue and be sued.

10. The doctrine of Indoor Management has its genesis in –
A. Ashbury Railway Carriage Company v Riche
B. Royal British Bank v Turquand
C. Salomon v Salomon & Company Ltd
D. Daimler Co Ltd V Continental Tyre & Rubber Co Ltd

Answer: 1-C, 2-C, 3-A, 4-A, 5-C, 6-B, 7-B, 8-D, 9-C, 10-B

FAMILY LAW II

1. Which among the following are sources of Hindu law?
A. Sruti
B. Dayabagha
C. Mitakshara
D. Coparcenary

2. The provisions for Mutual Consent Divorce is mentioned under
A. Section 13
B. Section 13B
C. Section 14
D. Section 15 3.

3 Escheat is a term employed to denote lapsing of property to the ______in default of heirs on the death of the intestate.
A. NGO
B. Government
C. Orphanage
D. None

4. Which one among these are not a requisite of a valid adoption?
A. The person adopting should have the capacity to take in adoption.
B. The person giving in adoption should have the capacity to do so
. C. The person who is adopted should be capable of being taken in adoption.
D. The person adopting should be above 18 years of age.

5. A partition as per Mitakshara law may be effected
A. By agreement
B. By notice
C. By conduct
D. All the above

6. The age of the bride and the Groom under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 are
A. 18 years and 21 years
B. 21 years for both
C. 18 years for both
D. 20 years and 22 years

7. ‘A’ a male Hindu dies in an accident.
‘A’ is survived by his wife, father son and daughter. He has not made a will. How will ‘A’s’ property devolve as per the Hindu Succession Act?
A. Equally to his wife, father, Son and daughter
B. Equally to his wife and father
C. Equally to Wife Son and daughter
D. All the property goes to his father

8. Can an unmarried Hindu Girl of 25 years adopt a boy of 10 years under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act? Justify your Answer with any of the following.
A. if the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a male, the adoptive mother should be at least twenty-five years older than the person to be adopted
B. if the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a male, the adoptive mother should be at least twenty-one years older than the person to be adopted
C. if the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a male, the adoptive mother should be at least twenty years older than the person to be adopted
D. if the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a male, the adoptive mother should be at least twenty-three years older than the person to be adopted

9. under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act “guardian” means a person having the care of the person of a minor or of his property or of both his person and property, and includes—
A. (i) a natural guardian, (ii) a guardian appointed by the will of the minor’s father or mother, (iii) a guardian appointed or declared by a court
B. (i) a natural guardian, (ii) a guardian appointed by the will of the minor’s father or mother, (iii) a guardian appointed or declared by a court, and (iv) a person empowered to act as such by or under any enactment relating to any Court of wards.
C. (i) a natural guardian, (ii) a guardian appointed by the will of the minor’s father or mother, (iii) a guardian appointed or declared by a court.
D. (i) a natural guardian, (ii) a guardian appointed by the will of the minor’s father or mother

10.Two persons are said to be “_____________” of each other if one is a lineal ascendant of the other within the limits of sapinda relationship, or if they have a common lineal ascendant who is within the limits of sapinda relationship with reference to each of them.
A. Agnate
B. Cognate
C. Sapindas
D. Ancestors

Answers: 1-A, 2-B, 3-B, 4-D, 5-D, 6-A, 7-C, 8-B, 9-B, 10-C.

TRANSFER OF PROPERTY ACT

1. Which of the following doesn’t fall under the scope of Transfer of Property Act 1882?
a) Transfer of property by gift
b) Transfer of property by will
c)Transfer of property to an unborn child
d) Transfer of property by exchange

2. Which rule is correct with regards to transfer of property to an unborn child?
a) there can be no transfer to an unborn child
b) Transfer can be made to an unborn child of future property only
c) Transfer to an unborn child must include complete remaining interest of the transferor of the property
d) Only life interest can be created in favour of the unborn child

3. Every transfer of immoveable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor.
a) Shall be void
b) Shall be voidable at the option of the creditor so delayed
c) shall be valid as long as the main transaction is valid
d) shall not be registrable

4. Which of the following easementary right is a continuous easement
a) A has a right to way on B’s land to reach is house
b) A has right to support to the wall of his house from B’s wall
c) A has right to air
d) A has right to park car on B’s land
5. In which kind of mortgage is the possession delivered
a) English Mortgage
b) Usufurctary Mortgage
c) Simple Mortgage
d) Mortgage by Deposit of title deeds

6. Accessory follows
a) agent
b) servant
c) principal
d) umpire

7. If there is a condition restraining alienation, then the____.
a) condition is void
b) transfer is void
c) condition and transfer both void
d) condition is void but transfer is valid

8. A transferor makes absolute gift to transferee, with the condition that, transferee shall reside in it. Here the direction is_____.
a) valid
b) void
c) voidable
d) void ab initio

9. Unborn person must be given _____ interest
a) life
b) entire
c) life or entire
d) neither life not entire

10. Transfer by operation of law will not include ____
a) inheritance
b) insolvency
c) forfeiture
d) will

Answers: 1-B,2-C,3-B,4-C,5-B,6-C,7-A,8-B,9-B,10-D.

SEMESTER IV

BANKRUPTCY

1. An Information utility shall not provide an access to the registers, reports and minutes submitted by an insolvency professional under regulation 38 (1) to;
a) IBBI
b) Adjudicating authority
c) Insolvency professional concerned
d) Creditor

2. A person eligible for registration as an Information Utility may make an application to the IBBI along with a fees of;
a) Non-refundable application fee of one lakh rupees
b) Non-refundable application fee of ten lakh rupees
c) Non-refundable application fee of five lakh rupees
d) Refundable application fees of one lakh rupees

3. An information Utility shall establish an appropriate risk management framework in accordance with the Technical Standards, if any, which may not provide fort
a) reliable recoverable and secure systems
b) provision of core services during disasters and emergencies
c) business continuity plans but not including disaster recovery sites
d) business continuity plans which shall include disaster recovery sites

4. A person eligible for registration as an Information Utility may make an application to the IBBI ailonn with a fees of
a) Non-refundable application fee of one lakh rupees
b) Non-refundable application fee of ten lakh rupees
c) Non-refundable application fee of five lakh rupees
d) Refundable application fees of one lakh rupees

5. Within how much period shall a person, seeking to be registered as an Information Utility with IBBI, submit an explanation to IBBI in response to receipt of Communication from IBBI informing about its opinion regarding non-renewal or non-generating of registration as an IU
a) within 15 days of receipt of communication from IBBI informing about such opinion
b) Within 30 days of receipt of communication from IBBI informing about such opinion
c) Within 15 days of passing of the order by IBBI forming such an opinion
d) Within 45 days of receipt of communication from IBBI informing about such opinion

6. An appeal may be preferred by an information utility to NCLAT under Regulation 42, against the order issued to it under Regulation 41(7e of the IBBI (IU) Regulations, 2017 within
a) thirty days of receipt of the order
b) B forty-five days of receipt of the order
c) C ninety days of receipt of the order
d) D sixty days of receipt of the order

7. The bye-laws amended by the governing board of the information utility shall come into effect
a) On the fifth day of receipt of the approval by the board
b) On the sixth day of receipt of the approval by the board
c) On the seventh day of receipt of the approval by the board
d) On the fifteenth day of receipt of the approval by the board

8. When can a bank initiate a corporate insolvency resolution process in relation to a corporate debtor?
a) On determination of default by National Company Law Tribunal.
b) Occurrence of default.
c) On net-worth of the debtor becoming negative.
d) On the bank classified the account as Non-Performing Asset.

9. The Adjudicating Authority shall appoint an Interim Resolution Professional within ……… days of the insolvency commencement date.
a) 07
b) 14
c) 21
d) 28

10. Insolvency petition could be filed if the debt amounts to:
a) Rs. 500/- or more
b) Rs. 5000/- or more
c) Rs. 50, 000/- or more
Answers: 1 –D, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-A, 6-A,7-C, 8-B, 9-B, 10-A.

CONTRACT II

1) A continuing guarantee applies to
a) a specific transaction
b) a specific number of transactions
c) any number of transactions
d) reasonable number of transactions

2) Passing of property in goods on sale by one of the joint owners is regulated under the sale of goods Act,1930 by
a) section 27
b) section 28
c) section 29
d) section 30

3) section 30 (1) of the sale of goods Act,1930, applies where
a) the subsequent transfer is by way of sale
b) the subsequent transfer is by way of pledge
c) the subsequent transfer is by other dispositions
d) the subsequent transfer is by way of sale, pledged or other disposition

4) A sale of goods by a person in possession of goods under a voidable contract, can pass a valid title to the buyer, as provided under
a) section 28 of the sale of goods act,1930
b) section 29 of the sale of goods act,1930
c) section 30 of the sale goods act,1930
d) section 31 of the sale of goods act,1930

5) Under section 19 of the sale of goods Act, 1930 the property in goods in a contract for sale of specific or ascertained goods, passes to the buyer
a) when the contract is made
b) when the parties intend the property in goods to pass
c) when the goods are delivered
d) when the price is paid

6) Where the seller ships the goods but takes the bill of lading in him own name at buyer’s place, under section 25 of the sale of goods Act, 1930, in such a situation, the seller
a) has reserved jus disponendi
b) has not reserved jus disponendi
c) has the option to reserve jus diponendi
d) may or may not have reserved jus disponendi

7) The historic case laying down the test for determining the existence of a partnership is
a) v. smith
b) wangh v. carver
c) bloream v. fell
d) cox v. hickman
8)The relation of partnership arises from contract and not from status, has been prescribed under a
a) section 4
b) section 5
c) section 6
d) section 7

9) The relation of partnership arises from contract and not from status, has been prescribed under
a) section 4
b) section 5
c) section 6
d) section 7

10)The term ‘partnership’ has been defined under ‘
a) section 3
b) section 4
c) section 5
d) section 6
ANSWERS: 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-B, 5-B, 6-A, 7-D, 8-B, 9-B,10-B.

CRIMINNOLOGY

1. Who is the Father of Modern Criminology?
a) Saint Thomas Aquinas
b) Rousseau
c) Cesare Lombroso
d) Enrico Ferri

2. Kinds of Punishment under IPC –
a) Section 51
b) Section 52
c)Section 53
d)Section 54

3.Who was the Chairperson of the ‘All India Committee on Prison Reforms 1980-1983’?
a) Justice M.N.
b) Justice A.N. Mulla
c) Justice Krishna Iyyer
d) Justice A.S.

4. Conditional release of an offender under supervision is –
a) Parole
b) Probation
c) Farlough
d) Bail

5. Victim Compensation Scheme under –
a) Section 357 A
b) Section 356
c) Section 358
d) Section 355

6. Santhanam Committee worked for –
a) Prison reform
b) Cyber Crime
c) Rape Victims
d) White Collar Crime

7. What is Mens Rea?
a) Motive
b) Act
c)Criminal Intent
d) Crime

8. FIR is defined under –
a) Section 154
b) Section 155
c) Section 156
d) Section 157

9. Among the following, which is the modern principle governing punishment to offenders?
a) Retributive
b) Preventive
c) Reformative
d) Compensatory

10. Juvenile Justice Board is constituted under –
a) Section 2
b) Section 4
c) Section 6
d) Section 5

Answers: 1-C, 2-C, 3-B, 4-B, 5-A, 6-B, 7-C, 8- A, 9-C, 10-B.

JURISPRUDENCE

1) “The word Jurisprudence is derived from Latin Word Jurisprudentia which means _____
a) Study of law
b) The origin of law
c)Knowledge of law
d) Custom of Law

2) “The aim of law should be the greatest good of the greatest number of people”, who said this:"
a) Sevigny
b) Maine
c)Puchta
d)Bentham

3)"Who defined jurisprudence as ‘the formal Science of positive law’?"
a) Salmond
b) Holland
c) Gray
d) Bentham

4) The study of Jurisprudence as a separate branch of knowledge started with Greeks.
a) Romans
b) French
c)Arabic
d)English

5) The functional aspect of law is studied by:
a) Realist School
b) Sociological School
c) Philosophical School
d) Analytical school

6) “In civil criminal justice wrongs are divisible into:"
a) Good and bad
b) Punishable and non-punishable
c)Public and private
d)Enforceable and non-enforceable

7) “Retribution under the retributive theory of punishment means the wrong doer:"
a) Is shunned by the society
b) Pays for his wrong doing
c)Is punishment by God
d)Is morally reformed

8) Jural correlative of power is
a) Liability
b) Disability
c)Immunity
d)Right

9) Salmond considers absence of right as
a) co-relative of duty
b) co-relative of liberty
c)co-relative of power
d)co-relative of Immunity

10) The meaning of corporation aggregate is:
a) A combination of persons to do business
b) An incorporated group of coexisting persons
c) A juristic group of various
d) Natural person

ANSWERS: 1-C, 2 -D, 3-A, 4-A, 5-B, 6 -C, 7-B, 8 -A, 9 -B, 10 –B.

LAND LAWS

1. What document includes in the term “Instrument” as per the Maharashtra Stamp Act, 1958?
a). Letter of Credit
b). Promissory Notes
c). Bill of Exchange
d). Passbook

2. For how long is the stamp valid from the date it is paid?
a). Three Months
b). Four months
c). Six months
d). One year

3. As per the MRTP Act, 1966 What is included in the term “Development”?
a) Building
b) Hut
c) Digging
d) Tent

4. Which section of the MRTP Act, 1966 covers the concept of Acquisition of Land?
a) Section 115
b) Section 125
c) Section 135
d) Section 145

5. As per the MHADA Act, 1976 what includes in the term “Amenity”?
a) Supply of water
b) supply of grains
c) Drainage
d) Pipelines

6. Who can collect cess against property as per the MHADA Act 1976?
a) The Administrative Office
b) The Gram Panchayat
c) The Municipal Corporation
d) Lok adalat

7. What is the Full Form of FSI?
a) Floor Size Indicator
b) Floor Space Indicator
c) Floor Space Index
d)Floor Space Indicator

8. What is the Formula of FSI?
a) Total plot area divided by total area on all floors
b) Total No. of floors divided by total area on all floors
c)Total area on all floors divided by total plot area
d) Total area on all floors divided by no. of floors

9.What is the full form of TDR?
a) Transfer of Development Rights
b) Transfer of Developing Rights
c) Transmission of Development Rights
d) Transmission of Developing Rights

10. As per the Maharashtra Agricultural land (Ceiling on Holdings) Act, 1961 what includes in the term “Agriculture”?
a) Horticulture
b) Supply of grain
c) Tilling of municipal area
d) Construction

Answers: 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B,5-A, 6-C, 7-C, 8-C,9-A,10-A.

LAW OF TAXATION

1. The Income Tax Act, 1961 came into force w. e. f. _________
a) 1st April, 1962
b) 31st March, 1961
c) 1st April, 1961
d) 31st March, 1962

2. Amongst the following _________________ is empowered to levy tax on agricultural income
a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Commissioner
d) President

3. Circulars and Notifications are binding on the:
a) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
b) Assesse
c) Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT)
d) Income Tax Authorities

4. SEBI was established in:
a) 1992
b) 1993
c) 1994
d) 1995

5. Finance Commission is constituted once in
a) Every month
b) A year
c) Three years
d) Five years

6. Wherever in the Act the phrase ‘as prescribed’ appears it means that –
a) Regulations are to be framed in this respect
b) Rules have been framed in this respect
c) Regulations were earlier framed in this respect
d) Regulations are framed in this respect

7. Who amongst the following confers on the power to issue circulars and clarifications?
a) ITAT
b) Central Government
c) CBDT
d) State Government

8. Amendments by the Finance Act are made applicable from:
a) First day of next financial year
b) First day of same financial year
c) Last day of same Accounting year
d) First day of same Accounting year.

9. Income Tax is charged in –
a) Financial Year
b) Assessment Year
c) Previous Year
d) Accounting Year

10. A person includes:
a) Only Citizen
b) Only Artificial Person
c) Individuals, HUF
d) Individuals, HUF, Company, Firm, AOP or BOI, Local Authority, Every Artificial Juridical

Answers: 1- A, 2-B, 3- D, 4-A, 5- D, 6-D, 7-C, 8-A, 9-B, 10- D.

SEMESTER V

CIVIL PROCEDURE CODE AND LIMITATION ACT

1)Section which deals with the transfer of decree in the Code of Civil Procedure?
a) Section 43
b) Section 33
c)Section 39
d) Section 62

2) The term “Res judicata" means
a) Further proceeding
b) A matter already adjudicated
c) Stay of proceeding
d) Bar the Proceedings

3) . Where a person challenges a Decree, he shall challenge the same by filing
a) Appeal
b) Application
c) Notice of Motion
d) Chamber Summons

4. A ________ is said to take place when the High Court calls for the record of any case decided by a subordinate court and passes an appropriate order.
a) reference
b) review
c) revision
d) appeal

5. An inter pleader suit is one where the real dispute is between the____________only.
a) plaintiffs
b) defendants
c) intervenors
d) respondents

6. Article ____ of the constitution enacts that the law declared by the supreme court shall be binding on all courts in India.
a)140
b) 141
c) 142
d)143

7.The jurisdiction of a court, from the following are _______
a) Pecuniary jurisdiction
b) jurisdiction based on the interest
c) jurisdiction based on rights
d)jurisdiction based on the judgement

8. Litigating parties, ______ upon court jurisdiction of the court, by mutual consent.
a) cannot confer or cannot take away
b) can confer or can take away
c) cannot confer but can take away
d) can confer but cannot take away

9. A sues B for a declaration of title to land and obtains a decree.
a) then sues C for possession. C contends that B is owner and that he is in possession as B’s tenant. The defence is not barred
c) The defence is barred
d) the defence is valid
d) defence is illegal

10. Preliminary decree is one
a) which determines the rights of the parties with regard to some or one of the matters in controversy in the suit but does not finally dispose of the suit
b) which does not determine judgement
c)which does not determine order
d) which does not determine the rights of the parties

Answer: 1-C, 2 -B,3-A,4-A,5-B,6-B, 7 -A, 8-B,9-B,10-A.

CRPC

1. Which of the following statements in NOT true regarding the charge sheet made under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
a) In case of offence of a rape of a child the charge sheet must be submitted within three months of the FIR
b) After submission of the charge sheet there cannot be any further investigation into the case by police
c) The right to be released on bail is lost once the charge-sheet is filed
d) Charge sheet against absconding accused can be filed even if the accused is not arrested

2. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 came into force on
a)01.04.1973
b) 02.04.1973
c) 01.04.1974
d) 02.04.1974

3. Under the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 classification of offences has given as cognizance and no cognizance offence-
a) under the section 2
b) under the first schedule
c) under the second schedule
d) under the third schedule

4. According to which section of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 definition of warrant has been given
a) Section 2(g)
b) Section 2(h)
c) Section 2(w)
d) Section 2(x)

5. Section 204 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deal with –
a) Examination of complainant
b) Examination of Accused
c) Issue of process
d) Cross Examination of Accused

6. Discharge of the accused under section 249 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
a) Is considered to be acquittal for the purpose of section 300 of CrPC
b) Is based on the merits of the case
c)Acts as a bar on filing second complaint
d) Need not be done in case the complainant dies

7. Section 202 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deal with –
a) Examination of complainant
b) Dismissal of complaint
c) Issue of process
d) Postponement of issue of process

8. Who amongst the following is not competent under section 92 of Cr PC to order the postal or telegraph authority to deliver the document(s)/thing:
a) District Magistrate
b) Judicial Magistrate
c) Metropolitan Magistrate
d)Special executive Magistrate

9. District Magistrate are under control and subordinate to
a) Sessions Court
b) Chief Judicial Magistrate
c) High Court
d)State Government

10. Section 19 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deal with provision relating to
a) Executive Magistrate
b) Special Executive Magistrate
c) Metropolitan Magistrate
d) Subordination of Metropolitan Magistrate

Answers: 1-B, 2-D, 3-B, 4-D, 5-C, 6-D, 7-D, 8-B, 9 -D, 10 – D.

INTERPRETATION OF STATUTES

1. Where in an enactment, the rare two provisions which cannot be reconciled with each other; if possible effect may be given to both. This is what known as the_____________
a) Rule of harmonious construction
b) Rule of reasonable construction
c) Rule of ejusdem generis
d) Literal Rule

2. According ________ rule of interpretation meaning of word should be known from its accompanying or associating words?
a) Mischief Rule
b) Golden rule
c)Noscitur a socis
d) Primary rule

3. ________means that contemporaneous exposition is the best and strongest in law?
a) Ejusdem generis
b) Contemporanea Exposition Est Optima Est Fortissima in Lege
c) Noscitur a sociis
d) Literal Rule
4) Interpretation of statute Should not be given a meaning which would make other ________ provisions?
a) Ineffective
b) Redundant
c) Dormant
d) Void

5. What is delegated legislation?
a) A decision of the courts
b) An Act of Parliament
c)Law made by a delegation
d)Law made by a person or body to whom Parliament has delegated power

6. What is meant by statutory interpretation?
a) The interpretation of a statute by Parliament
b) The interpretation of a statute by the House of Commons
c)The interpretation of a statute by the courts
d) The interpretation of a statute by the House of Lords

7. What is meant by the purposive approach?
a) The judge must interpret the statute on purpose
b) The judge must interpret the statute in the light of the purpose of its enactment
c) The judge must interpret the statute with a purposeful manner
d)The judge must interpret the statute in the purpose of deciding the case before him or her

8) A statute has been defined as the______
a) Will of the king
b) Will of the society
c) Will of the magistrate
d) Will of the legislature

9)_______contain the main object of the act?
a) Long title
b) Short title
c) Preamble
d) Marginal Notes

10 .While constructing a provision in penal statute if there appears to be a reasonable doubt or ambiguity it shall be resolved in favour of?
a) State government
b) Union
c) who would be liable to penalty
d) citizens

Answers: 1-A,2-C,3-B,4-B,5-D,6-A,7-D,8-D,9-C,10-C.

PUBLIC INTERNATIONAL LAW & HUMAN RIGHTS

1. The International Court of Justice comprises
a) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
b) President, Vice President and 14 other members
c) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
d) President, Vice-President and 16 other members.

2. Contiguous Zone is limited to a maximum of
a) 25 miles (24 nautical mile)
b) 50 miles
c) 12 miles
d) 20 miles

3 The main difference between de jure and de facto recognition is that the former is__
a) Legal while the latter is factual
b) Provisional and latter is definite
c) Informal while the latter is formal
d) Explicit and latter is implicit.

4. Foreign ships sailing and anchoring in the coastal waters of another state are
a) Subject to the law of Flag State
b) Subject to the law of Coastal State
c) Subject to the law of both the States
d) Subject to the International law

5. Principal of “double criminality” means that:
a) the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states
b) the person who is being extradited must be tried in both the states but may be punished in one c) that the offence for which a person is extradited must be an offence in both the states
d) the person has committed double crime.

6. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for
a) Five years
b) Two years
c) Permanently
d) Ten years

7. The Security Council is:
a) Specialized agency of the U.N
b) Principle organ of the U.N
c) N.G.O. for settling disputes between various states
d) Organ for security of states

8. What is CONTRABAND?
a) All narcotics
b) Articles banned by a government
c) All smuggled goods
d) Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war

9. The preamble to the universal declaration on human rights was adopted on:
a) 12 January 1949
b) 10 Dec 1948
c) 6th Aug 1947
d) 15 Dec 1949

10.The basic frame work for the nature and characteristics of treaties was defined in the:
(a) Vienna convention on the law of treaties 1969
(b) Geneva convention on the high seas 1958
(c) Vienna convention on the law of treaties 1986
(d) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea 1982
Answer: 1-A,2-A,3-A,4-C,5-C,6-B,7-B,8-D,9-B,10 -A

SEMESTER VI

ADR

1.The expression ‘foreign award’ is denied under: ‘
a) section 41
b) section 42
c) section 44
d) section 40.

2.Part III of the Act deals with:
a) Geneva Conventions
b) Conciliation
c) UNCITRALUNCITRAL
d)New York Convention aw

3.The power and functions of the conciliator has been laid down under:
a) section 64
b) section 62
c) section 67
d)section 63

4)Termination of conciliation proceedings are laid down under
a) section76
b) section 74
c) section 73
d) section 75

5)The concept of fairness embodies
a) the concept of justice
b) the concept of equality
c) the concept of unbiasness
d) the concept of liberty

6)The principle of cooperation is laid down under
a) Section 71
b) Section 70
c) Section 69
d) Section 65

7)In case of a domestic arbitration who can challenge be made to?
a) panchayat/municipal council
b) district court/high court
c) only high court.
d) supreme court

8.The definition of ‘Arbitral Tribunal’ under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 means
a) sole arbitrator or a panel of arbitrators
b) sole arbitrator only
c) panel of arbitrators only
d) presiding officer.

9.The arbitral tribunal may arrange for administrative assistance
a) with the consent of the parties
b) with the consent of the claimant
c) without the consent of the parties
d) of its own, irrespective of the consent of the parties.

10. An application for setting aside an arbitral award must be made by the party after receiving the award within:
a) three months
b) thirty days
c) ninety days
d.) forty days.

ANSWERS: 1-C, 2-B,3-A,4-A,5-B,6-A,7-C,8-A,9-A,10-A.

BANKING LAWS

1. Insurance works on the principle of:
a) Sharing of losses
b) No Probabilities
c)Small numbers
d) Sequence

2. Insurance helps to:
a) Prevent adverse situations from occurring
b) Reduce the financial consequences of adverse situations
c) Negate all consequences of adverse situations
d) Make assets continuously productive

3. The term ‘Risk’ includes:
a) No damage to machinery and property
b) No Impact on the health or life of a person
c) Leakage of toxic products into the atmosphere
d) No Effect on the healthy life of the neighbourhood

4. The main purpose of having Life insurance is:
a) As an avenue for long-term investment
b) As a medium for getting income tax benefits from savings
c) As a governmental programme for reducing poverty
d)As to protection in the instant estate to meet survivor needs

5. Which of the following intermediaries do not require IRDA’s licence/ approval to operate in India?
a) Insurance Brokers
b) Insurance Agents
c)Third Party Administrators
d)Age and Income

6. An actuary is expected to:
a) Make an exact forecast of the future liabilities of policies
b) Make a reasonable forecast of the future liabilities of policies
c)Calculate the premium required to cover a risk on a long-term basis
d) Find the probability of an insured event to happen in non-life policies

7.The principle of _____________ ensures that an insured does not profit by insuring with multiple insurers
a) Subrogation
b) Contribution
c)Co-insurance
d) Indemnity
8. The principle of average applies when the value is _____________ in the proposal
a. Understated
b. Overstated
c. Not ascertainable
d. Negligible

9 Fidelity Guarantee Policies cover losses due to fraud by ____________
a. Employees
b. Customers
c. Borrowers
d. Suppliers

10. CTL as used in insurance.
a. Contributory Total Loss
b. Constructive Total Loss
c. Construction Totally Lost
d. Contractors’ Total Loss

ANSWERS: 1-A, 2 -B, 3-C, 4-D,5-A,6-B,7-B,8-A,9-A, 10 –B.

CONFLICT OF LAWS

1. Who was not a proponent of natural law?
a) Jeremy Bentham
b) Aristotle
c) St Thomas Aquinas
d) St Augustine

2. Which is not a case of lifting of corporate veil
a) Connors Bros. V. Connors
b) Jones v. Lipren
c) Pearce v. Brookes
d) CIT v. Meenakshi Mills Ltd.

3. Carriage of Goods by Sea Act 1971 incorporates in the UK legal order the:
a) Hague-Visby Rules
b) Rotterdam Rules
c) Hamburg Rules
d) Hague rules

4. The Montreal Convention applies to carriage by air where the place of departure and the place of destination are:
a) Situated in two contracting states
b) Both within the EU
c) Within the same country
d) Within the same continent

5. In a contract for carriage of goods by road under the relevant Geneva Convention of 1956, the carrier shall be liable for the total or partial loss of the goods and for damage thereto occurring:
a) During the night
b) Between the time when he takes over the goods and the time of delivery
c) Between the time when he takes over the goods and a week after delivery
d) In case there is a delay of no more than 24 hours
6.A marriage of a Muslim man with his niece or great niece is
a) Void
b) Irregular
c) Valid
d) Muta.

7. When foreign judgment is not conclusive which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure comes into operation?
A. Section 15
B. Section 16
. Section 13
D. Section 10

8.Which of the following deals with presumption as to foreign judgments in the Code of Civil Procedure?
a) Section 18
b) Section 14
c) Section 19
d) Section 13

9. No party to be ordered to appear in persons unless resident under which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure?
a) Order 7, Rule 3
b) Order 2, Rule 2
c) Order 5, Rule 4
d) Order 4, Rule 8

10. The provisions of section 3, Limitation Act are
a) mandatory
b) directory
c) discretionary
d) optional.

ANSWERS: 1 -A, 2 -C, 3 -A, 4 -A, 5 -B, 6 -A,7-C, 8 -B, 9 -C, 10 – A.

INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY LAW

1. Intellectual Property is a
a) creation of intellect
b) creation of object
c) creation of property
d) Creation of wealth

2. Intellectual Property protects
a) What a human mind creates
b) What a human mind thinks
c) What some other thinks
d) what he /she purchased

3. Intellectual property is an
a) Intangible right in respect of a tangible work
b) Tangible right in respect of intangible work
c) Tangible and intangible right
d) Tangible right

4, The right of possession is the
a) Is the intangible right of the purchaser
b) Is the tangible right of the purchaser
c) Is the intangible right of the seller
d) Is the tangible right of the seller

5. Intellectual property laws provide
a) Limited rights to the creator
b) Unlimited rights to the creator
c) Exclusive rights to the creator
d) Infringes the rights of the creator

6. The characteristics of intellectual property is
a) It is not movable property which is assignable and transferrable
b) It is a movable property which is assignable and transferable
c) It is assignable and not transferable
d) Not assignable and not transferable

7. The Universal Copyright Convention (UCC) came into force in the year of
a) 1952
b) 1951
c) 1953
d) 1958

8. GATT had come into effect in the year
a) 1949
b) 1945
c) 1943
d) 1947

9. Intends of world trade organization is
a) To supervise international trade related aspect
b) To supervise and liberalize international trade related aspect
c) To mandate international trade related aspect
d) To protect international trade related aspect

10. WIPO is entered into force on

a) April 26th, 1970
b) April 20th 1970
c) April 15th 1971
d) April 25th 1970

Ans: 1.A; 2.A; 3.A; 4.B; 5.C; 6.B; 7.A; 8.D; 9.B; 10.A

LAW AND MEDICINE

1 – Which system of medicine is regarded as mother of all healings
A – Unani
B – Ayurveda
C – Homeopathy
D – Siddha

2 – The first Unani physician known as the father of medicine
A – Masood Rashid Zangi
B – Helisinki
C – Hippocrate
D – Zia Mohd.

3 – Which book of Yoga touched almost all the aspects of human life
A – Sushruta Samhita
B – Charak Samhita
C – Patanjali Yogasutra
D – Kahoun Papyrus

4 – The natural law of healing “Similia SimilibusCurantur” means
A – Health for all
B – Likes are cured by likes
C – Social and Spiritual Welfare
D – Healthy holistic life

5 – who are not generally the subjects of experiments due to lack of consent
A – Children and incompetent adults
B –Old people
C. Injured people
D. Healthy person

6 – The right to life or personal liberty under article 21 from the point of view of health includes
A – right to pollution free environment, right to get treatment, right to choose doctor
B – right to health, right to doctor’s assistance, right to pollution free environment
C – right to be treated free of cost, protected improved natural environment
D – right to doctors assistance, to be free of cost in government hospital, right to equal treatment.

7 – The communication between Husband and wife, Lawyer and client
A – Relative privileged communication
B – secret communication
C – privileged communication
D – Absolute Privileged communication

8 – Consent given by the patient or his relative or his family member or guardian or attendant for the medical examination
A – Express consent
B – Implied consent
C – Informal consent
D –Self-determination

9 – A physician should not exaggerate nor minimize the gravity of his patient’s condition is called
A – Secrecy
B – Standard care
C – Diagnosis
D – Prognosis

10 – Consent needed for a valid contract has to be free consent when it is free from
A – Writing
B – Undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake
C – Expressed by the party
D – Parties accepted the contract through its action

ANSWER KEY
1-B, 2-C, 3-C , 4-B , 5-A , 6-B , 7-D , 8-C , 9-D ,10-B.

LAW OF EVIDENCE

1. The Indian Evidence Act was drafted by –
a) Lord Macaulay
b) Sir James F. Stephen
c)Huxley
d)Sir Henry Summer Maine

2. Which of the following has not been mentioned in the definition of “Documents” as the means by which any matter is expressed or described upon any substance
a) Letters
b) Symbols
c) Figure
d)Marks

3. Which of the following term is not defined in Indian Evidence Act?
a) Proved
b) Misproved
c) Disproved
d) Not – Proved

4. Doctrine of “ Res Gestae” literally means –
a) Things done
b) Things Spoken
c) Same transaction
d) Things Then

5. Confession made by a person while in police custody is inadmissible under – a) Section 29 Indian Evidence Act
b) Section 26 Indian Evidence Act
c) Section 25 Indian Evidence Act
d) Section 27 Indian Evidence Act

6. Material Evidence obtained as a result of illegal; search/seizure is –
a) Not at all admissible
b) Reliable as any other evidence.
c)Admissible but wholly unreliable
d) Admissible but its probative value depends on the facts and circumstances

7. An item of evidence which is not a substantive is –
a) Dying declaration
b) First information Statement
c)Admission of the party
d)Admission of authorized agent of the party

8. Opinion of expert under section 45 of Indian Evidence Act –
a) Is a conclusive proof
b) Is not conclusive proof
c)Is not relevant
d)Is not admissible

9. A witness unable to speak, if gives his statement in writing before the court, then such evidence may be deemed to be –
a) Oral Evidence
b) Documentary Evidence
c)Hearsay Evidence
d) Evidence

10. Admissibility of electronic records has been prescribed under which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act?
a) Section 65
b) Section 65A
c)Section 65B
d)Section 66

ANSWERS: 1-A,2- B, 3- B,4- A,5- B,6- D,7-B,8- B,9-A,10-C.

LAW OF INSURANCE

1. Insurance works on the principle of:
a) Sharing of losses
b) No Probabilities
c)Small numbers
d) Sequence

2. Insurance helps to:
a) Prevent adverse situations from occurring
b) Reduce the financial consequences of adverse situations
c)Negate all consequences of adverse
d)Make assets continuously productive

3. The term ‘Risk’ includes:
a) No damage to machinery and property
b) No Impact on the health or life of a person
c)Leakage of toxic products into the atmosphere
d) No Effect on the healthy life of the neighbourhood

4. The main purpose of having Life insurance is:
a) As an avenue for long-term investment
b) As a medium for getting income tax benefits from savings
c) As a governmental programme for reducing poverty
d) As to protection in the instant estate to meet survivor needs

5. Which of the following intermediaries do not require IRDA’s licence/ approval to operate in India?
a) Insurance Brokers
b) Insurance Agents
c)Third Party Administrators
d) Age and Income

6. An actuary is expected to:
a) Make an exact forecast of the future liabilities of policies
b) Make a reasonable forecast of the future liabilities of policies
c) Calculate the premium required to cover a risk on a long-term basis
d) Find the probability of an insured event to happen in non-life policies

7. The principle of _____________ ensures that an insured does not profit by insuring with multiple insurers
a) Subrogation
b) Contribution
c)Co-insurance
d) Indemnity

8. The principle of average applies when the value is _____________ in the proposal
a) Understated
b) Overstated
c)Not ascertainable
d)Negligible

9. Fidelity Guarantee Policies cover losses due to fraud by ____________
a) Employees
b) Customers
c)Borrowers
d) Suppliers

10. Which of the following terms matches closest with ‘Family Floater’?
a) Health insurance
b) Property insurance
c) Accidental injury
d) Consequential loss
Answers: 1-A, 2 -B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-D, 6-B, 7 -B, 8 -A, 9 -A, 10 –A.

LAW RELATING TO WOMEN AND CHILDREN

1. What are the minimum and maximum punishments for a person convicted of raping a woman who has never been his wife?
a) Minimum seven years’ imprisonment; maximum death sentence
b) Minimum seven years’ imprisonment; maximum ten years’ imprisonment
c) Minimum five years’ imprisonment; maximum death sentence
d) Minimum seven years’ imprisonment; maximum death sentence

2. CEDAW stands for
a) Convention on Equality Declaring Authority of Women
b) Conference of Elimination of Discrimination Against Women
c) Covenant of Equality Declared Against Women
d) Convention on Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women

3. According to the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the marriageable age for males is ___ years and for females is ____ years.
a) Twenty-one; twenty-one
b) Twenty-one; eighteen
c) Eighteen; twenty-one
d) Eighteen; eighteen

4. NCW stands for:
a) National Commission for Women
b) Notional Command in Web
c) National Common Website
d) Natural Command for Women

5. Which of these was a social evil prevalent in the pre-independence period in India and was abolished by the British Government in India?
a) Domestic violence
b) Marital rape
c) Teenage pregnancy
d) Sati

6. The Constitution of India, 1950 provides for reservation for women on grounds of-
a) Racism
b) Equality
c) Reasonable classification
d) Matriarchy

7. The ______ ceremony is mandatory for a valid Parsi marriage:
a) Aashirwaad
b) Saptapadi
c) Baptisation
d) Mahr

8. In India pre-natal sex determination of an unborn child is legally _____
a) Allowed when the parents already have a female child
b) Allowed when the parents already have a male child
c) Not allowed at all
d) Allowed irrespective of the number of children previously had

9. According to Sec 498-A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 any cruelty for dowry to a woman by the husband and/or his relatives is:
a) A bailable offence with upto three years’ imprisonment
b) A bailable offence with upto three years’ imprisonment and fine
c) A non-bailable offence with upto five thousand rupees’ fine
d) A non-bailable offence with upto three years’ imprisonment and fine

10. Medical termination of pregnancy can be conducted in case of non-medical emergency at:
a) a place authorized by district-level committee constituted by the Government
b) a place authorized by any registered medical practitioner
c) place authorized by the Indian Medical
d) at any place where a gynecologist is present

ANSWERS: 1 -A, 2 -D, 3 -B, 4 -A, 5 -D, 6 -C,7 -A, 8 -C, 9 -D,10 –A.